On Mon, 23 Aug 2004 17:26:35 -0400, "Ian St. John"
wrote:

Psalm 110 wrote:
On Mon, 23 Aug 2004 05:42:41 -0400, "Ian St. John"
wrote:


No. As in why a uniform level of heat energy, no matter how high,
cannot be used to extract mechanical motion.

In the global weather system there are NEVER uniform levels of heat,
because there are three primary shear forces exerted on the atmosphere
by planet rotation, there is polar and equator insolation differences,
there is season tilt., there are irrgularities of surface features,
there are irregularities in oceanic topography, there are different
albedos of surfaces.

Fine, but that was not the point. The point was a technical one about a
statement that was wrong *in and of itself*.

You statement is consistent with your body of statements. You believe
in uniformitism in global warming, and you are disputatious about
evidence that focallized hot spots are being aggravated TODAY by
increases of greenhouse gases. Since you have a posting history, track
record, reputation, you are interpreted to mean your normal position
advanced regularly and frequently. YOU put words in your mouth, and
you are held responsible for consistent self-inflicted blindness that
causes you to keep repeating them.

If evidence has alterred your position -- say so, and you will be held
accountable to a new (instead of the old) position.

Even current levels of CO2 have effects and it is paramount to be
monitoring these effects to build the database crucial to accurate
predictions of the future.

You have been a denialist, and a "uniformist", and you have been
visibly wrong.

No. The problem now becomes, not whether a uniform temperature can be
converted to mechanical energy (winds, currents, etc ) but whether global
warming ( a change in the average temperature) will have an effect on the
levels of heat differences. It is not a simple question.