Hello, I am in a Meteorlogy class and I am having trouble
understanding the prevailing westerlies. If the Coriolis effect is
moving the trade winds from east to west in the northern hemisphere,
why do the prevailing westerlies move from the west to the east.
Shouldn't the Coriolis effect deflect these winds from the east to the
west like the trade winds? Please make this more clear for me.
Thanks in advance!